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How does Queen Elizabeth I exploit the difference between the "person of the king" and the "office of the king" to her advantage?

Asked by troubleinharlem (7991points) January 30th, 2011

I’m trying to help my mom with her homework assignment about Queen Elizabeth I, and I have no idea how to on this, so I told her to ask on my fluther account to see if you guys had any ideas. We’re clueless.

Okay, now she’s typing all this other stuff.

troubleinharlem’s mom: Okay, so, apparently the difference between the office of the king and the person of the king is like the difference between the office of the President and Barack Obama.

Here’s the speech, and I answered with this:

“Queen Elizabeth mentions “God, kingdom, and people” twice. The kingdom is the office, which is intangible. Elizabeth is letting her army know that she is the executive ruler of the office, in addition to being the ruler of the people. She lets them know that she is willing to die for all three entities.”

I know that this is a stupid answer, but it’s all that I could come up with. I’m stumped.

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