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If police can arrest peaceful demonstrators for refusing to leave a public place, then what does the First Amendment right to assembly and petition mean?

Asked by ETpro (34605points) October 16th, 2011

The 1st Amendment to the US Constitution guarantees, among other things, the right to assemble and to petition our government for grievances.

Now corporations as such did not exist at the time the Constitution was written. Wall Street did not exist as an institution. Companies were granted charters by a state to operate within that state only. A very small number gained multi-state charters to carry out enterprises that needed to cross state boundaries. The Pony Express would be one such business.

But perhaps in their wisdom and foresight, our Founding Fathers knew Corporations would exist in the future and that they are the real “people” the Constitution is meant to defend, and so they just meant that corporations should be free to operate government by auction, as the system currently works and as the Supreme Court’s Citizens United vs. FEC decision guarantees it will continue to work.

So does the right to petition mean that lobbyists have the right to meet with government, but individual citizens do not? Are Americans going to leave the Occupy Wall Street protesters undefended and let Government of the people, by the Corporations and for the Corporations become the new watchword of freedom? Or should we organize a defense fund and take every case of illegal arrest toward the Supreme Court on appeal? If we do that long enough, do you think we can take our country back?

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