Lawyers please answer -- when someone sues someone else [of modest means] for $10 million dollars over a nuisance claim, is that a rather rough invitation to SETTLE some beef?
Been there, done that, bought the T-shirt. I countersued for, among other things, “abuse of process.”
The damn bloody thing lasted 5 years and 2 more on appeal. I felt I had to do what I did, because plaintiff [IMHO] had already taken something de facto and was trying to claim it de juris. And so I did what I did.
But is the usual meaning of such an action an invitation to surrender something in a settlement?
This question is in the General Section. Responses must be helpful and on-topic.