Can you give me some sentences using "had" after "have"?

I have had many different living situations.

@YARNLADY : what does this mean?

I have many different living situations

have had- past
have-present

I have dogs.
This means I currently have dogs.

I have had dogs.
This means I once had dogs.

The present perfect is used when the time period has not finished:
I have seen three movies this week.
(This week has not finished yet.)

The present perfect is often used when the time is recent:
Ikuko has just arrived in Victoria.

The present perfect is often used when the time is not mentioned:
Gerry has failed his exam again.

The present perfect is often used with for and since.
Greg has lived here for 20 years.
Greg has lived here since 1978.

source:
http://web2.uvcs.uvic.ca/elc/studyzone/410/grammar/pperf.htm

I Have had a poo

Before they bought a decent grammar book, they have had so much trouble understanding the use of the past perfect tense.

I have had enough of this nonsense…...:):)

not referring to thread of course

also can be contracted to I’ve had enough.

I have never had this question asked of me.

I have had dinner already.

@mattbrowne That might even need “had had.”

@gemiwing On point.

I have had a yearning for a banana split!!!!

“Look at the expression on her face. she must have had a really bad experience”.

No problem.

“I have had lunch” is confusing because it uses the verb “to have” in two different meanings in one sentence.

The first time it occurs in that sentence is when it is being used as an auxiliary verb, the second time it is used in the meaning of the normal verb. As in “to have lunch” or to “eat ones lunch”.

The sentences could be rewritten as
“I have lunch.” – “I eat my lunch.”
“I have had my lunch.” – “I have eaten my lunch.”

“I have a house.” – “I possess a house.”
“I have had a house.” – “I have possessed a house.”

I hope that helps.

@mattbrown shouldnt that have been “they had had so much trouble”? ;-)

edit:- Sorry – I was like mustard after the meal there. You were “caught” already. ;-)

I have had enough trouble in my life already without this question….
:)

I have had lunch,
” lobster,
” okra,
” anal sex with my wife.
There was at least one time I had lunch, lobster, okra or anal sex with my wife.
It is rarely used with something as common as lunch because it stresses the occurrence as noteworthy to the conversation. The last one would be much more appropriate to this type of wording.
I have had anal sex with my wife. In other words, I’m familiar with it. Everyone has had lunch at one time and it would rarely if ever be used in that manner unless someone was an alien.
I had lunch.
It could have happened anytime in the past from moments ago and back.

I think the confusion here, as @whitenoise indicates is that there are two meanings of the word “have.” One is to own, the other is basically to “own the experience” because it is past (e.g. to “have done something). I’ll illustrate by replacing the second “have” with “own”

“I have a car” (I currently own a car)
“I had a car” (I used to own a car)
“I have had a car” (I am a person who once owned a car)

Now that I think about it, the crucial difference is in the intent, and what you’re trying to prove. The last version is about indicating something about my present state – that I am now a person who has experienced car ownership – rather than something about my past state (that I owned a car).

Exactly. I was referring to the time before having access to a good grammar book ;-)

Which can lead to mistakes. That was my point.

So, after they bought a decent grammar book, they have had no trouble understanding the use of the present perfect tense, but before they bought a decent grammar book, they had had so much trouble understanding the use of the past perfect tense.

@mattbrowne Good save.

@jfos – Like I said in the other thread, its only a problem when our brain and it’s syntactic processor is switched off.

EDIT: Lame response moderated by me.

(its) I have had enough with the confusion between “it’s” and it’s.

I thought that I had had it yesterday, but I see now that I still notice.

If you were to put have you would be talking about something that is in the present, but if you put had after have it would change to you talking about something in the past for example:
present:I have sweets
Past:I have had sweets

I hope it helps I know it wasn’t the best answer.

@Apples
That’s pretty simple and it is called the present perfect.

If you say, ‘I have several different living conditions.’ that sounds like you currently have several different living conditions.

If you say, ‘I have had several different living conditions.’ you are stating that, in the past, you lived in several different living conditions at different times.

http://www.englishpage.com/verbpage/verbtenseintro.html

I’ve noticed that for “have had”, most people say things like “I’ve had”. It makes it sound less odd to me… :\

Can you give me some sentences using “have” before “had”?

The distinction made by @whitenoise is exactly the explanation I would have given if I had tackled this question first.

Whenever your main verb is “to have” in the sense of owning or possessing or any of the other of the first 23 senses here, and you want to form the present perfect or the past perfect tense (using “have” or “had” as an auxiliary), you have the two verbs together in some form.

We have had fun at your party.
My sister has had four healthy babies.
You have had your cold for a long time.
I have had Mr. Smith as my math instructor.
I had had three proposals before I finally chose a bridegroom.
No one has had more than one chance to win.
We have not yet had our inspection.

@Jeruba
This sounds wordy
I had had three proposals before I finally chose a bridegroom.
I think that, “I had three proposals before I finally chose a bridegroom.”, is more sensible.

@SeventhSense: Change the auxiliary and it sounds fine.

I had sneezed sixty times in a row before I realized I had allergies.

It isn’t wordy, @SeventhSense. It’s a matter of time relative to the action of the main verb. The past perfect “had had” places it earlier in time than the action of “chose,” which is in the simple past. The structure of the sentence with “before” is meant to reinforce that relationship as a matter of illustration.

Sentences composed for illustrative purposes aren’t always the most natural-sounding English because they are written for a purpose other than simple communication.

@gailcalled, you changed the main verb, not the auxiliary. “Had” as an auxiliary remains the same in both sentences.

I have had enough of that Eminem and Rihanna song. :/

@SeventhSense, you’ll find me in disagreement here too:
Everyone has had lunch at one time and it would rarely if ever be used in that manner unless someone was an alien.

“Do you want something to eat?”
“No, thanks. I’ve had lunch.”

“Would you like a piece of cake?”
“Well, I have had lunch, but I guess there’s room for dessert.”

“Are you ready to go?”
“Not yet. I haven’t had lunch.”

“It’s only noon—too early to eat.”
“No, it isn’t. I have had lunch at 11:30 every day for the past week.”

And on.

@Jeruba
“Well I have had lunch, but I guess there’s room for dessert.”
“Well, I had lunch, but I guess there’s room for dessert.”
The first is just wordy and the second doesn’t change the meaning at all. No one imagines that you are referring to some distant point at which you had lunch and are pining for the day when you can have lunch again. Unless of course you added, “Well I had lunch, but alas it is a fleeting memory and yea there may be room in my belly for some dessert being that I have not eaten lunch since that fateful day.”
The past perfect “had had” places it earlier in time than the action of “chose,” which is in the simple past.
But of course it happened before you chose. That’s implicit. What could you choose from unless there were choices presented? I still think it sounds like a stutter.

Best example I found was this blog-usingenglish.com wherein
anonymous states:

”The verb “have” acts as an auxiliary verb for the perfect aspects/tenses.

The perfect aspects are formed using “have + past participle”.

Now, keep in mind that “have” is a verb unto itself. When “have” functions as its own auxiliary in the past perfect, we can choose to leave out “have” as auxiliary so as to avoid the confusion that you are making reference to now. In this manner it is not the past perfect, but the simple past. Take a look at these examples:

Up until lunchtime, he had not eaten anything.

had – as auxiliary + not eaten – eaten as past participle – had not eaten

Up until lunchtime, he had had nothing to eat. (best example I can think of now)

had – auxiliary verb in the past to form the past perfect – + had – past participle – to form the past perfect -

The past form of “have” which is “had” is functioning as an auxiliary in order to form the past perfect with the past participle of “have” which is “had”.

had/auxiliary + had/past participle = had had – past perfect aspect of the verb “to have”

We can leave out the first “had” and put the sentence in the simple past. The meaning is not changed in this manner.

Up until lunch time, he had nothing to eat. or He had nothing to eat up until lunchtime._”

Sorry, @SeventhSense, what sounds right to you doesn’t carry more weight with me than my education and my understanding of the structure of the language.

@Jeruba
Both are correct of course. One is just more plain.

@SeventhSense Nice try, but I’ll go with * sigh *.

;-)

Lurve ya both.

Thanks @Marva for this most entertaining question and thread. I have had a most wonderful read, and I look forward to meeting you in the Past Perfect Progressive thread next; when George tells us that he ”had been painting his house for weeks, but he finally gave up.”

@SeventhSense @Jeruba :
I’ve actually had some troubles. means:
I feel troubles everyday or i have felt troubles(some time before i faced troubles not now).

I have had it with this discussion. (That’s an idiom, son.)

English is a silly language.