In a rape situation, do you think that, under certain circumstances, demanding to know the victim's sexual history is justified?

From this article.

At first I was totally taken aback, but as I read further, the victim’s defense revolves around her sex life, or lack of. She claims she was a virgin at the time.

In the article, in part, it reads, ”...Plaintiff has put her sexual history at issue by arguing that she is unable to have sex, doesn’t have any interest in sex, and has experienced difficulties in romantic relationships due to her inability to have sex and lack of interest in sex.”

Well, this leaves me scratching my head. By using that as her defense, doesn’t she open herself up to investigation of those claims?

On the other hand, if it’s true, then investigation will prove it and there should be no problem.

As an aside, I also fail to see what an “inability to have sex,” or lack of interest in sex, has a single thing to do with being raped.
Also, how is a woman “unable” to have sex? Not enjoying it, or it being painful, doesn’t equal an “inability,” the same way as a man with ED would have an inability. That could be a whole ‘nother question, just in case we haven’t had enough to argue about lately.