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Why did Europe develop industrial capitalism before the Far East did?

Asked by TexasDude (25274points) February 20th, 2011

First of all, I’d like to say that I want to avoid a Eurocentric argument as much as possible. God didn’t smile upon Europe (and especially Britain) with His protestantism which magically made everyone a harder worker. I want to avoid that kind of historical narrative because it’s… well… incorrect.

That said, I’m aware that Britain had easy access to coal deposits that China and India just didn’t have. The British (as well as Spain, Portugal, and others) also got involved in the colonialism game early on, which made a lot of them fabulously wealthy (and contributed to the development of industrial capitalism). Until the Age of Exploration, Europe was sort of a hillbilly backwater while the Far East was super rich and technologically advanced (with their own pockets of proto-capitalistic activity), so why did Europe perfect large scale industrial capitalism first? Is it really because of their colonies and their almost accidental easy access to coal?

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