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Why did Romney find it necessary to disavow Todd Akin's statements about rape?
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August 20th, 2012
Apparently, the Romney campaign found it necessary to distance itself from Todd Akin’s legitimate rape comments. Why?
Was it necessary for Romney to say anything? Could he have waited until someone asked him if he agreed with Akin’s comments? Is the presumption that Romney agrees with anything any Republican says anywhere until he says otherwise? Why would we not presume that Romney disagrees with such outrageous comments until he positively affirms them?
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