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Is the American system of leveling fines against someone basically unfair, because it doesn't "hurt" the wealthy?

Asked by JackAdams (6574points) August 21st, 2008

If the average American (I’m speculating, of course) is fined $500 by a court, that probably causes that indiviual some financial suffering, which is what fines are intended to do.

However, how much financial “pain” would Bill Gates have to endure, if he (a multi-billionaire) was fined $500? (I bet he spends that much money in a day, on tips.)

I’m suggesting that, in order for a punishment against an offender to be totally fair, the punishment has to affect everyone, equally, and fining individuals doesn’t (as in the above example), so the practice should be eliminated.

Some punishments have the same effect on everyone, universally. Two of them are life in prison without the possibility of parole, and the other is the death penalty.

But assessing monetary damages to someone is something that only affects the non-wealthy, and therefore, it is inherently unfair.

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