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During my first marriage, I was married to a hispanic woman and several times she used to talk to my in-laws in Spanish in front of me knowing that I didn't speak Spanish and had no idea what she was saying.
Asked by Bluefreedom (22944)
December 25th, 2008
Do you think it would be rude for one spouse to do this to another even if the conversations going on might have been totally innocent? Has anyone ever experienced something like this and would like to share their opinions?
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