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How are à priori synthetic judgements possible?

Asked by aeschylus (665points) February 22nd, 2009

I am reading Kant’s “Critique of Pure Reason” right now, and he insists that, first: Pure Mathematics and Mathematical Physics represent systems of knowledge formed from insights that arise entirely outside of and prior to empirical knowledge, and that furthermore their fundamental insights are based on insights that underlie our experience.

Do you think that mathematics and physics really have this character, and if so, how are their conclusions possible, since they do not in any way depend upon any experience of the world?

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