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Is it possible that God would use secular governments as His means for caring for the poor?

Asked by Harp (19179points) October 28th, 2008

I’m not a Christian, but my understanding of the Gospel is that God promises to feed the hungry and clothe the poor (e.g. “Look at the birds of the air, for they neither sow nor reap nor gather into barns; yet your heavenly Father feeds them…So why do you worry about clothing? Consider the lilies of the field, how they grow: they neither toil nor spin…if God so clothes the grass of the field, which today is, and tomorrow is thrown into the oven, will He not much more clothe you, O you of little faith…Therefore do not worry, saying, “What shall we eat?’ or “What shall we drink?’ or “What shall we wear?”).

So many Christians these days seem to be taking the position that government has no business giving “handouts” to the poor (not to mention health care or other entitlements). But is it out of the question that Got might actually use such means to fulfill His assurances of providing for the poor? Can we know that this isn’t His purpose? In fighting against government-run assistance programs, how do we know that we’re not working against God’s will?

If I remember correctly, there are plenty of scriptural examples of God using secular regimes to advance His will.

Since this question is clearly not about whether or not God exists, could we please leave that argument to one of the countless other discussions on that topic?

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