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When did the Koran become the Qu’ran, and why?
Asked by anartist (14808)
May 26th, 2011
Does it coincide with some overall greater awareness of Muslim and Middle Eastern cultures [not the same thing] or are there simply fashions in spelling? If so are they started by reporters, statesmen, scholars? “How are you supposed to spell Muammar Gaddafi/Khadafy/Qadhafi?” has been asked here already. I also wonder as the the why of it all.
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