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NSFA. Does the phrase "...had sex with..." imply a mutal consent?

Asked by Dutchess_III (46841points) June 12th, 2011

Like, an 18 year old was sentenced after he admitted to having sex with a 17 year old. Well, that kind of makes you think….“Well, no harm no foul, really?”

Well, I was reading the Wichita paper today and there was a blurb about a 79 year old man who was sentenced to two life terms after he ”...admitted to having sex with two girls, ages 6 and 7.”
I almost choked on my fries. You don’t “have sex” with a 6 year old! You rape a 6 year old.
Just turned my stomach. And the way it was written seemed so freaking insensitive and uncaring. I just want to throw up.

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