Is a store owner legally obligated to serve all customers?

Assume that the customer is not in any way disruptive, but the owner has a personal dislike for the person. Maybe it was someone who had bullied him when he was in school or the person who stole his wife from him. I am not asking if such behavior would be justified, only if it is legal. Suppose that the owner refused to serve the customer and the customer sued and it can be shown that there is no discrimination based on race or religion. Who would win the lawsuit?