If she didn't sin, why did Jesus say "Go and Sin No More"?

New Testament – John 8.11 -

Jesus is talking to the adulteress, and asks her if anyone had condemned her.

She answers, “No one, Lord.” And Jesus said, “Neither do I condemn you; go, and from now on sin no more.”

Here’s my question. If Jesus says “Go and sin no more” isn’t he suggesting / implying that she did sin, even if no one is condemning her?

And that seems to counter what he said a sentence before “Neither do I condemn you.” It seems contradictory, that in one verse Jesus denies condemning her, but in the next verse, he implicitly does so. The words No More are the giveaway.

Wouldn’t it have been better to say “Don’t sin in the future” or even “Live well” instead of referring to the adulteress’s actions?