General Question

KRD's avatar

Do deaf people hear in their sleep?

Asked by KRD (5259points) February 24th, 2023

A couple days ago there was a question if blind people could see while they dream. This sparked me to wonder what happens in deaf peoples dreams. Do they hear in their dreams or is it like a mute TV?

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5 Answers

SnipSnip's avatar

No, the prior question was not if blind people see in their sleep; it was do they see in their dreams. Deaf people do not hear in their sleep. I have read that the deaf person has better-than-average other senses and seems like vibration resulting from an explosion or thunder might wake them. Only a deaf person could really answer this.

LadyMarissa's avatar

According to one of our jellies whose wife is deaf, the answer is NO!!! He responded to the same question you reference here.

His response was…
Yes, but without images.
My wife, who is deaf from birth, dreams without sound.

Lightlyseared's avatar

It depends, some deaf people report they hear in their dreams and some report they don’t. People who lose their hearing are more likely to report that they hear in their dreams.

Bill1939's avatar

It would depend on when someone’s deafness began. Those who were never able to hear are unlikely to experience hearing when dreaming (as LadyMarissa pointed out). I think that hearing loss in infancy, before their language skill developed, might experience sounds associated with circumstances present when awake. I imagine that the scenarios of an infant’s dreams would be simpler than those of more mature individuals who likely would include speech.

linguaphile's avatar

I’ve asked my all-Deaf/HH students a similar question several times over the years and get a variety of answers each time.

The question I ask is more of, “How do you communicate in your dreams,” and most of the answers fall in three broad areas: through speech, through sign language, and telepathically. I communicate telepathically in my dreams and don’t hear anything.

The students who say they speak in their dreams have said both… they hear normally as if they’re not deaf, or they use speaking and not actually hearing speech, but still understanding spoken dialogue.

Most of my students say they don’t hear in their dreams, but almost all say they understand communication regardless.

There doesn’t seem to be a set pattern or correlation- like “if they heard before, then they hear in their dreams” – it’d be easy to assume that would be true, but that’s not really what happens.

I find this question intriguing enough that I ask it regularly!

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