General Question

Theseus's avatar

Should The Hobbit have occured in 2940 T.A in order to align the moon phases with LOTR?

Asked by Theseus (49points) January 20th, 2011

Using astronomy software I realized it was impossible for the events in The Hobbit to have happened in 2941 T.A. and still have the phases of the moon be in alignment with that of LOTR. However, it fits perfectly if you move it back one year. Was there a missing year?
I found one year from about 6,000 years ago(as Tolkien implied in one of his quotes) that squares the seasons, venus and moon phases for 3019 T.A. I just couldn’t get The Hobbit to fit.

Observing members: 0 Composing members: 0

4 Answers

coffeenut's avatar

Well…..In the Lord of The Rings universe it could be correct….

Lightlyseared's avatar

It happened when it happened and couldn’t ‘ve happened at any other time.

troubleinharlem's avatar

Were you really bored today?

No, but I don’t think that Tolkien actually thought someone would go and do this. If he was alive you could ask him, but he’s not, so… there probably was some sort of mistake made. But no problem, right? It’s still a neat book.

Theseus's avatar

I’ve figured it out. Midyear’s Day in 3019 is July 22, 4008 B.C.(Julian proleptic). You saw it here first.

Answer this question




to answer.

This question is in the General Section. Responses must be helpful and on-topic.

Your answer will be saved while you login or join.

Have a question? Ask Fluther!

What do you know more about?
Knowledge Networking @ Fluther