General Question

lapilofu's avatar

What about the gay Bradley effect?

Asked by lapilofu (4325points) November 3rd, 2008

Intelligent sources demonstrate pretty compellingly that the Bradley effect doesn’t actually exist and quite possibly never did, but what about a “gay Bradley effect”? Is it possible that we should expect greater support for Prop 8 in California at the voting booth than in the polls due to people worried about appearing homophobic when being polled?

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10 Answers

Mizuki's avatar

Bradley is gay?

EnzoX24's avatar

It doesn’t matter. California votes dem almost every time. That’s why you almost never hear of republicans campaigning in California. The same thing goes in many other states for the Dems.

EmpressPixie's avatar

Okay, but this is about Prop 8, not the national election.

EmpressPixie's avatar

To answer the question: While it is possible, I think it is probably overruled by secret sympathists. There are so many people who are very secretive about their support for gay people that the people who are secretly against it should even out.

lapilofu's avatar

I like your answer, EmpressPixie, if only because I really hope you’re right.

Knotmyday's avatar

Wow. I didn’t even know this was on the ballot in CA. Why is it???

Please vote no, as in “no-brainer.”

Judi's avatar

@Exzo
California votes Dem on national issues but the reason they brought this prop up was because the California supreme court overruled a previous election that banned Gay marriage as unconstitutional under the California Constitution. This proposition changes the California Constitution. Voters DID vote in California to ban Gay Marriage already.

Zuma's avatar

We’ll know day after tomorrow.

galileogirl's avatar

Of course we all know the majority is not always correct and one of the functions of the courts is to protect minority rights.

EnzoX24's avatar

@Judi, thanks for clearing that up. I will admit I read it half-assedly. I think I was writing paper at the time. But either way, my mistake.

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