Why most international air service agreements between countries is still conducted on a bilateral basis?

Asked by Tbag (3549

) December 24th, 2011

Why is the introduction of the ‘freedoms of the air’ in the Chicago 1944 convention is important? Does all this have to do with security, politics, quality control? http://definitions.uslegal.com/f/freedoms-of-the-air/

Observing members: 0

Composing members: 0

1 Answer

A lot of it has to do with economic equality between carriers. The UK is not going to give United a gate and five or six landings a day at Heathrow unless British Air gets a gate and similar landings at JFK or Dulles.

And there are a limited number of destinations in some countries as opposed to large numbers in the US.

zenvelo (39434

)“Great Answer” (1

) Flag as…